Does the one ring turn Sauron invisible?

http://www.haibane.info/2010/01/18/does-the-ring-turn-sauron-invisible/

Good enough for me.

I was going to tell you that.....

It's not inviso, but a transference to the netherworld. Which is why it fails to hide Frodo on weathertop when the nazgul are looking for him. It actually makes him fully visable to them.

Considering I read those books in Jr. High, it's amazing what sticks in your head sometimes.

ShadowMaster wrote:I was going to tell you that.....

It's not inviso, but a transference to the netherworld. Which is why it fails to hide Frodo on weathertop when the nazgul are looking for him. It actually makes him fully visable to them.

Considering I read those books in Jr. High, it's amazing what sticks in your head sometimes.

Really good books tend to do that, i remember shit from books that i read 20 years ago !

The ring had different effect based on the bearer.

From Tom Bombadil (zero effect therefore he did change) to any man (non-Numenorean) which would have an instant effect. Hobbits were unusual in that the had a very high Resistance the ring. The reason for this is never explain in the book.

I believe it is because Saron was not aware of the Hobbits existence and therefore no "magic" was in place to directly take hold. Basically, Saron did not know how to put his power into the will of a Hobbit. Plus Hobbits are naturally evasive.


A big misconception is that Saron made all of the Rings, he didn't, just the ONE Ring. He taught the elves how to make the others. Then he ran off to make his ring. When Saron put it on Celebrimbor immediately knew what was happening and hide the other three rings. Saron return with an army to recover the rings, but could not retrieve the three (all though he did get 30 in all I believe). These same rings were used against him later.

Christopher Lee (the actor who played Sauraman) states he reads LotR once a year.

JerryB